It seems to me that what I have been taught in my theological training is quite different from what most of you are seeing here, though similar to one, and similar in approach to others, but with a different result.
First, I must say that I am not sure I even believe what I am telling you anymore myself. It is what I have believed and been taught in the past, and perhaps it will be useful to the discussion, but I am going through the process of re-examining much of what I have been taught and believed and that's why I'm even watching this show (and finding it very stimulating and helpful).
Ok, now to the woman. First, it doesn't matter whether we equate "judge" with "condemn" or not, because if we read the text rhetorically (meaning to examine in its context with regard for its intended message and its intended audience), we'll find a pretty simple understanding of that word. The bottom line is that the law had very specific requirements. It did not allow for lynching and mob executions. Stoning could only happen when a number of legal directives were followed, such that some bible commentators have said that properly executed stonings were done by "deputized" groups who had a specific function within the civil government of Israel.
Between Leviticus 20 and Deuteronomy 22, among other places, the law required that two or three eye witnesses "condemn" the accused. And further, the law required that BOTH parties be stoned. So, when the pharisees brought the woman to Jesus alone, without the man, the law was not being followed to start with, since the man was not brought with her (and it is evident that they knew who the man was, because they told Jesus she was "caught" in the act). In his interaction with the pharisees, Jesus never for one minute sought to defend the woman's innocence. In fact, his later words showed he sovereignly knew her to be guilty.
Contextually, the pharisees were not trying to provide a biblical trial for the woman, or ask Jesus' help in following the law correctly, and they knew that--they were trying, as the John tells us in an aside, to trap Jesus with their cleverness. So the incident was not centered around the woman, or her sin, or the righteous requirements of the law, but was a challenge against Jesus by which they hoped to trap and accuse him. Of course, the reason they thought they might trap him was that he had come preaching forgiveness of sin, and was known as a friend of sinners, for which they called him a glutton, a winebibber, and a friend of whores and tax gatherers (and it is quite simply true that the woman was a whore, according to biblical language, which all of us are also spiritually when we fail to be faithful to God).
So, Jesus brilliantly diffused the situation, as he always did, and the pharisees one by one quietly went away until there was only Jesus and the accused woman left. Legally this meant that she was officially acquitted, or in other words, not condemned. So Jesus told her, basically in the legal language of the day, "I also acquit you of this charge." But, rather than leaving at that, so people who heard of it, or read it, or discussed it like we are today, would think that he was condoning her lifestyle, he also said, "go and sin no more." Or, as the NIV puts it, "leave your life of sin."
Also, this becomes a beautiful earthly picture of Jesus as our advocate when we are accused before God by our own sins (as well, the bible tells us, by "the deceiver" and "accuser" himself). Jesus defense of us before His father's righteous judgment is not based on our innocence any more than was his defense of the woman. But more than merely the beautiful picture of grace and mercy that this surely is, it is also a picture of Jesus shrewdly defeating the prideful pharisees, and also pointing out to all who have an ear to hear that the law does not exist merely for condemnation, but to point us to righteousness.
So, that's what it boils down to, to me. Can we not, like Jesus, abstain from condemnation, and in fact acquit our brothers and sisters so that we, like God the father, see the righteousness of Jesus either actually or potentially covering the sin of the sinner, but also say to the sinner, attempting to point her or him towards the light, "leave your life of sin." Can we not do this and not be accuse of judgmentalism? (Let's not get bogged down here discussing how it isn't hardly ever done this way. Let's talk about what we ought to do, not what is done.)
I also agree that what Stu said is true, but maybe it is true in addition to the rest of this, that Jesus was also speaking as God, and giving the woman true absolution, living water, eternal acquittal. But even if we see it that way, when we offer our brothers and sisters that living water today, what is wrong or unloving about saying that they need to "leave their lives of sin?"
That is what I've been trying to understand: why it makes people homophobes or judgmental asses to call wrong what God calls wrong. If I am right about these concerns, then the question is what does that mean to the discussion? How could we act in such a way as to address the concerns of those who say we're driving people away, and yet also speak God's words after him and say lovingly and acceptingly of the person, "go and sin no more," which is to imply that you were sinning before, and ought to stop now. There is no limit to how often we should extend grace and mercy to the penitent, according to Jesus' seventy times seven rule (meaning indefinitely). So we must stand up to bullies and bigots and haters and meanies on behalf of the downtrodden, even in their sin (for does not the bible record that Jesus died for us while we were yet IN our sin?), and we must say to those downtrodden ones, "neither do I condemn thee."
But are we to leave off the "go and sin no more?" |